Олимпиады по английскому языку

9-11 классы 2014

ВНИМАНИЕ! В аудиторию запрещено вносить любые средства мобильной связи (мобильные телефоны, пейджеры и т.п. техника), плееры и др.

ЗАПРЕЩАЕТСЯ использование словарей и справочной литературы!

Рассаживать участников следует таким образом, чтобы они не видели работы других участников.

Все инструкции для участников перед проведением письменных конкурсов даются на русском языке.

Перед началом письменных конкурсов старший член жюри в аудитории проводит общий инструктаж. В инструктаже обязательно должны быть отмечены следующие моменты:

Перед началом письменного конкурса объявить:

О продолжительности конкурса.

Listening comprehension: 8 минут.

Integrated reading and listening: 7 минут.

Reading comprehension: 25 минут.

Use of English: 60 минут.

Writing: 50 минут.

Выходить во время конкурса из аудитории не рекомендуется. Выход в туалет разрешен только по одному. На это время участник сдает свою работу дежурным членам жюри. На листе ответов делается запись о времени отсутствия. Если во время конкурса у участника возникнут вопросы, можно поднять руку и ждать, когда подойдет член жюри и ответит на вопрос участника. Члены жюри не могут отвечать на вопросы, связанные с текстом задания. Во время конкурсов Listening и Integrated reading and listening нельзя выходить из аудитории и задавать любые вопросы.

2. После общей вводной части члены жюри раздают листы ответов (в конкурсе Writing задание написано на листе ответов ). Старший член жюри в аудитории проводит инструктаж по порядку оформления листов ответов:

На листе ответов указываются: № участника.
На листе ответов категорически запрещается указывать фамилии, делать рисунки или какие-либо отметки.
Бумага для черновиков раздается только в конкурсе Writing , в остальных конкурсах в качестве черновика может быть использован лист с заданием.
Письменная работа пишется только черными или синими чернилами. Запрещены красные, зеленые и т.п. Нельзя писать карандашом и делать карандашные отметки в тексте.
Сокращать в письменной работе ничего нельзя. Все сокращения будут расценены как орфографические ошибки.
Писать следует разборчиво, спорные случаи (о/а) трактуются не в пользу участника.
Никаких замазываний корректирующей жидкостью, стираний делать не следует. Если необходимо исправить, то можно аккуратно зачеркнуть неправильный ответ.

3. После инструкций по заполнению листа ответов раздается текст с заданием и на доске пишется время начала конкурса.

За 15 и за 5 минут до окончания работы:

Напомнить об оставшемся времени и предупредить о необходимости тщательной проверки работы.
Напомнить, что членам жюри должны быть сданы листы ответов, тексты заданий/ черновики.
Напомнить, что все ответы должны быть перенесены в листы ответов, так как тексты заданий/ черновики не проверяются .
Строго следить , чтобы не были вынесены из аудитории тексты заданий, листы ответов и черновики.

При сдаче работ тщательно проверить:

наличие всех выданных листов ответов.
наличие всех выданных текстов заданий.
отсутствие посторонних пометок в листе ответов.

Олимпиада по английскому языку состоит из 5 частей :

конкурс понимания прослушанного текста (Listening Comprehension);
конкурс понимания письменного и прослушанного текстов (Integrated Reading and Listening);
конкурс понимания письменного текста (Reading Comprehension);
лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English);

4) конкурс письменной речи (Writing).

За каждый правильный ответ участник получает один балл. Конкурс письменной речи оценивается в 20 баллов (Writing – 20 баллов).

Максимальное количество баллов – 110.

Учащиеся заносят свои ответы в бланки ответов (Answer sheet ), которые выдаются каждому участнику олимпиады. Задание из раздела Writing выполняется на бланке самого задания. Ни на бланке ответов (Answer sheet), ни на бланке задания из раздела Writing фамилия и имя учащегося НЕ пишутся. Каждый участник вписывает свой идентификационный номер, который ему присваивается до написания олимпиады.

Орфографические ошибки в заданиях учитываются, при наличии орфографической ошибки в листе ответов балл за правильный ответ не начисляется.

Часть 1. Конкурс понимание прослушанного текста (Listening Comprehension)

При проведении конкурса понимания прослушанного текста (раздел Listening ) необходимо:

дать участникам 1 минуту для ознакомления с первым заданием;
включить запись (дорожка № 1);
дать участникам 1 минуту для ознакомления со вторым заданием;
включить запись (дорожка № 2);

Часть 2. Конкурс понимание прочитанного и прослушанного текста (Integrated Reading and Listening)

При проведении данного конкурса необходимо:

дать участникам 2 минуты для чтения текста и ознакомления с заданием;
включить запись (дорожка № 3);
дать участникам 50 секунд просмотреть свои ответы;
включить запись (дорожка № 3) второй раз;
дать участникам 2 минуты, чтобы они могли перенести ответы в бланк ответов.

Часть 3. Конкурс понимания письменного текста (Reading Comprehension)

По сложности задания соответствуют уровню В2+ (усложненному продвинутому пороговому уровню) и С1 (Advanced – Уровень профессионального владения). Предполагается, что на этом уровне владения языком участник олимпиады должен уметь:

понимать статьи и сообщения по современной проблематике;
отделять важную для понимания текста информацию от второстепенной;
понимать позицию автора текста;
уметь установить связь между предыдущей информаций и последующей.

В текстах может содержаться до 2-3 % незнакомых слов, незнание которых не должно препятствовать пониманию текста и выполнению заданий.

Часть 4. Лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English)

Во всех за каждый правильный ответ участник получает 1 балл.

Максимальное количество баллов за лексико-грамматический тест – 50.

Вторая часть (Use of English) включает в себя задания, которые соответствуют усложненному продвинутому пороговому уровню сложности В2+ и С1 по шкале Совета Европы. Участники олимпиады должны продемонстрировать соответствующий уровень владения лексическим материалом и умение оперировать им. Проверяется также владение грамматическим материалом в рамках программы средней школы и умение практически использовать его не только на уровне отдельного предложения, но и в более широком контексте.

Часть 5. Конкурс письменной речи (Writing)

В задании письменного тура учащимся предлагается написать статью для журнала на основе объявления о художественном фильме и комментариях к нему объемом в 220 - 250 слов. К выполнению задания необходимо подойти творчески и постараться написать оригинальную статью.

На выполнение задания отводится 50 минут .

Предлагаемый жанр задания письменной работы проверяет навыки написания продуктивного письма, умение грамотно, логически и последовательно описывать события, проявляя при этом оригинальность в создании и построении сюжета.

При оценке письменной работы учитываются следующие критерии: содержание, композиция, лексика, грамматика и орфография (см. шкалу с критериями оценивания части "Writing").

ВНИМАНИЕ! Проверка письменных работ включает следующие этапы:

1) фронтальная проверка одной (случайно выбранной и отксерокопированной для всех членов жюри) работы;

2) обсуждение выставленных оценок с целью выработки сбалансированной модели проверки;

3) индивидуальная проверка работ: каждая работа проверяется в обязательном порядке двумя членами жюри независимо друг от друга (каждый член жюри получает чистую копию работы без каких-либо пометок). В случае значительного расхождения выставленных оценок (5 баллов и более), назначается еще одна проверка, «спорные» работы проверяются и обсуждаются коллективно.

По сложности задания соответствуют уровню пороговому уровню В2 (Upper-Intermediate – Пороговый продвинутый уровень) и С1 (Advanced – Уровень профессионального владения) по шкале Совета Европы.

1. Предполагается, что на этом уровне владения языком участник олимпиады должен уметь:

писать связные тексты сложной структуры на различные темы;
описывать и объяснять имевшие место или вымышленные события в логической и хронологической последовательности, излагать четко и ясно совокупность фактов или явлений;
излагать и правильно композиционно строить сюжет;
создавать логически связанный текст в соответствии с заданными параметрами жанра и стиля.

2. В хорошей статье допускается незначительное количество орфографических, грамматических или лексических ошибок (см. критерии оценивания).

3. В письменной работе поощряется оригинальность решения поставленной коммуникативной задачи.

4. Критерии оценивания письменной речи состоят из двух блоков: оценки за содержание (максимум 10 баллов) и оценки за оформление текста (максимум 10 баллов).

За превышение объема сочинения не более чем на 10 % баллы не снижаются. В том случае, если письменная работа участника имеет менее 40% от указанного в задании объема, работа не оценивается, т.к. коммуникативная задача считается невыполненной (подробнее см. критерии оценивания).

Подведение итогов:

Для каждого участника полученные баллы за каждый конкурс суммируются (16+12+12+50+20=110).

Победителем является тот участник, который набрал наибольшую сумму баллов.

Предварительный просмотр:

Муниципальный этап всероссийской олимпиады школьников по английскому языку, 2014 г.

9-11 классы

Part 1. Listening Comprehension

Task 1. You will hear a conversation. For items 1-10 , decide whether the statements marked 1-10 True (A) or False (B) according to the text you hear. You will hear the recording only once .

The man was driving home after a party in the small hours.

True

False

The man heard a very loud noise.

True

False

The flying saucer was about half a kilometer ahead of the man.

True

False

At first, the man thought that he had seen an airplane.

True

False

The man was so frightened that he drove as far away from the UFO as he could.

True

False

The man says he has seen an extraterrestrial.

True

False

The beast was huge and hairy.

True

False

The beast wanted to take the man to his master.

True

False

The alien could speak English.

True

False

The flying saucer was diamond-shaped.

True

False

Task 2. Listen to the conversation ‘Healthy Lifestyle’ and choose the best answer A, B or C to questions 11-16 according to what you hear. You will hear the recording only once .

11. Which sentence is not true?

A) The man likes to eat when watching TV.

B) The man is organizing a company basketball team.

C) The man was one of the best basketball players 25 years ago.

12. What is the woman worried about?

A) Her husband is not very healthy.

B) Her husband will spend a lot of time away from home.

C) Her husband will become a fitness freak.

13. What does the woman say?

A) Her husband has once had a heart attack.

B) Her husband needs a check-up.

C) Her husband should give up the idea of playing basketball.

14. What kind of diet does the woman recommend?

A) He should consume fewer fatty foods.

B) He should eat more carbohydrates.

C) He should cut down on eating lots of fruits and vegetables.

15. What doesn’t the woman suggest doing?

A) cycling

B) weight training

C) jogging

16. Why should the man start training?

A) To make the muscles and the heart stronger.

B) To lose weight.

C) To take part in an annual body building contest.

Integrated reading and listening

Task 1. Read the text, then listen to a part of the lecture on the same topic. You will notice that some ideas coincide and some differ in them. Answer questions 1-12 by choosing A if the idea is expressed in both materials, B if it can be found only in the reading text, C if it can be found only in the audio-recording, and D if neither of the materials expresses the idea.

Now you have 2 minutes to read the text.

For many years, scientists have known that music can help soothe babies. Then they discovered that listening to music, Mozart in particular, can help babies in ways they hadn’t imagined before. The phenomenon, called the Mozart Effect, was found to have positive benefits on intelligence and creativity.

In one study, psychologists gave study participants three tests. During each of the tests, the participants of the study listened to either Mozart, relaxation music, or nothing at all. The results of the study showed that all of the participants scored better on the tests after listening to Mozart. On average, the participants added about nine points to their IQ after listening to Mozart.

The Mozart Effect also affects the creativity of babies. In his book, American author Don Campbell described how playing Mozart for babies before they are born can help them become more creative as adults. According to Campbell, the music helped stimulate their mental development. By the time the babies were born, they were already more creative than babies who did not listen to Mozart. His argument was so strong that some hospitals decided to give all new mothers CDs of Mozart’s music.

Now listen to a part of the lecture on the same topic and then do the task (questions 1-12), comparing the text above and the lecture. You will hear the lecture twice.

1. Music can calm babies down.

2. The Mozart Effect has a good impact on children’s intelligence and creativity.

3. The study involved three tests.

4. One group of the test-takers did not listen to any music at all.

5. The test-takers were college students.

6. A molecular basis for the Mozart Effect has recently been revealed.

7. The extra nine points, added to the IQs of those who listened to Mozart, disappeared after 15 minutes.

8. Rats, like humans, perform better on learning and memory tests after listening to a Mozart sonata.

9. The Mozart Effect has not been proved scientifically.

10. Don Campbell’s book The Mozart Effect has condensed the world’s research on all beneficial effects of certain types of music.

11. Some hospitals gave new mothers CDs of Mozart’s music.

12. The theory of the Mozart Effect was a marketing tool.

Reading Comprehension

Task 1. Read the following newspaper article. Five sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs the one, which fits each gap (1-5) best of all. There are two extra sentences, which you do not need to use.

Don’t Worry Be Happy

One of my many faults has been my tendency at times to attempt to cross a difficult bridge before I have come to it. 1) ____________ I will tell you of an example of this sort of experience which overtook me many years ago and of which I was reminded just recently.

In the early Sixties, the British India Steam Navigation Company embarked upon a project to offer educational cruises to pupils of secondary and junior schools in Britain, a project which turned out to be very popular, and I was invited to be the Protestant chaplain on the second of the early cruises.

I was pleased to accept since it was during my month"s holiday from my church. 2) ______ I was being regaled by kindly friends with stories of how badly seasick passengers could become if it was stormy - as it often was - when sailing through the Bay of Biscay, which our ship would be navigating on its way to the Mediterranean.

I decided to seek help. 3) _____________ To my surprise and disappointment, he laughed ruefully.

"I"m afraid I can offer you no help at all. I was seasick every single time we left port during my service days!"

My anxieties proved needless. 4) _______________ It was different on our homeward voyage, with a force ten gale through Biscay. Many of my fellow passengers were seasick, but to my surprise and relief I was not in the least upset by the stormy conditions and the violent movements of the ship. 5) ____________ I had tortured myself needlessly, by trying to cross bridges before I came to them.

A Then I began to worry a bit, as I had never yet been to sea.

B People can cause themselves considerable pain and nervous tension by trying to cope in

Advance with the anxiety of an impending serious threat, for instance a major operation

Or some other calamity.

C The weather on our outward voyage was marvellously sunny all the way and the Bay of

Biscay was perfectly calm.

D As a result, I have invariably suffered totally unnecessary stress and strain, of no benefit

Either to myself or to anyone else.

E All my forebodings proved completely unfounded.

F I had a friend who had commanded a frigate in the war, and I asked him to advise me

What measures I might take to prevent seasickness.

G I once had an acquaintance who refused to take out an insurance policy or prepare for the future.

Task 2. Read the following newspaper article and answer questions 6-11 by choosing А, В, C, or D. Give only one answer to each question.

UP Up and AWAY

You may remember King Kong on the Empire State Building in the film, where a comparison is implied between the then highest building in the world (at 380m) and the giant, menacing ape. Ever since the Tower of Babel, man has liked to think big in terms of building. Whether it be by constructing pyramids, ziggurats or palaces (while, perhaps paradoxically, living in huts and hovels), he has had an urge to reach for the sky and it is this that has led to the twentieth/twenty-first century craze for skyscrapers. Indeed, thrusting aggressively into the sky like rockets about to take off, these structures seem to mimic our passion for space exploration.

In order for modern skyscrapers to be a practical possibility, however, something had to happen. That was the invention of the lift, by Elisha Graves Otis, in 1854. Three years later, it was put to commercial use in New York and buildings higher than five storeys became feasible for the first time.

The first high-rise constructions were not skyscrapers as we would recognise them today, but merely taller than average buildings. In 1899, however, the Park Row office block was constructed with a steel frame, and this led to new techniques where the form of the building is skeletal, with the main loading being located in the central core and the external “curtain wall” constructed of lightweight materials, for instance glass and aluminium. This substitution of lighter materials for concrete made it possible for architects to design buildings of 400 to 500m in height. Having said that, it should be borne in mind that the tallest building in the world is currently Petronas Towers, rising 452m above Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia and that it is also the tallest concrete structure in the world.

Getting higher and higher with the development of relevant technology, skyscrapers are a fair indication of economic trends, going up during the boom years only to come to a standstill when recessions cut off funds. For this reason, the 1980s heralded a wave of skyscraper building while the less promising 1990s slowed it down. Furthermore, the bulk of the building work has moved from its home in the USA (Chicago being the birthplace of the skyscraper) to Asia, reflecting the new power, prestige and confidence of the growing tiger economies. It is, therefore, no wonder that Kuala Lumpur’s Petronas Towers superseded Chicago’s Sear’s Tower, which at 443m had been the tallest building in the world for 22 years, in 1998.

The New World is, nevertheless, fighting back against this competition from the Pacific Rim, with plans for Chicago South Dearborn project (610m), to be completed by 2003. Europe, on the other hand, seems to have оpted out of the race altogether, the planned London Millennium Tower being scaled down from a projected 486m to 386m because otherwise people would consider it too tall! Europe’s current highest building, Commerzbank headquarters in Frankfurt, is, at 261m, no match for the American and Asian giants, and neither is London’s Canary Wharf (236m) which was the highest building in Europe until 1997. Asian giants in the pipeline are Tokyo’s Millennium Tower at 840m and Hong Коng’s Bionic Tower at a staggering 1,128m.

Asia and America may be experiencing an urge to push ever upwards, but there are sound reasons that have nothing to do with economy or lack of ambition, for keeping tall buildings to the 400 to 500m mark. Heights exceeding that present logistical problems, such as how to transport large numbers of people up and down the building, such as how to minimise wind sway (which may be as much as 3 metres (9 ft) in either direction, especially in the home of the skyscraper ‘windy city,’ Chicago!) and how to find investors to rent space in the middle, assuming that the bottom will fill with shops and the top with hotels and observation towers. Experts, however, are working on two of these problems, experimenting with different kinds of lift and conducting extensive wind tunnel tests to help eliminate wind-induced sway.

In times of economic austerity, though, can we really afford to build these energy-intensive structures? Well, they are in several respects eco-friendly, providing a lot of office space on relatively little land, concentrating several services in one place and reducing overspill into green belts.

Nevertheless, it is no mean feat to equip skyscrapers with renewable sources of energy, as ideas such as covering the facade with photo-voltaic cells to convert light energy into electricity are extremely expensive. Street-level winds, however, may be utilised to power turbines which generate electricity within the buildings, and there specific plans for a citygate ecotower in London (456m), which would derive half its energy sources from solar and wind power.

So, what will the future hold for skyscrapers? Will they change the face and the skyline of our cities just to make a point, as it were? Who knows? Even today, though, King Kong would be spoiled for choice.

6. Why does the author mention King Kong?

A. To remind the reader of the famous film.

B. To show the size of the building.

C. To prove that today King Kong would not be a good choice.

D. Because King Kong was a menacing ape.

7. The author states that people like to build big because

A it compensates for their inability to travel in space.

В it is rooted in our history.

С it seems to be an innate desire.

D they like to live in pyramids and palaces.

8. The modern skyscraper was first made possible by

A a device invented in the nineteenth century.

В buildings more than 5 storeys high.

С the steel-frame building technique.

D a commercial building in New York.

9. Skyscrapers are a mirror of

A the tiger economies.

В Asian power.

С building trends.

D economic tendencies.

10. What is the European attitude towards very high buildings?

A More enthusiastic than American and Asian ones.

В Competitive and aggressive.

С A lack of ambition.

D Not particularly enthusiastic.

11. Why are so many skyscrapers no more than 400 - 500m tall?

A Because people like them that way.

В Because investors don"t want them taller.

С Because taller buildings present specific problems.

D Because the middle floors cannot be let easily.

12. In ecological terms, skyscrapers today

A are too expensive and energy-intensive.

В are always eco-friendly.

С cannot be heated by alternative energy.

D are of some benefit to the environment.

USE OF ENGLISH

Task 1. For questions 1-15 read the text about school calendars in America. Solve the crossword puzzle by replacing the underlined words or word combinations with their synonyms. The (0 down ) and (00 across ) in the beginning of the text have been done as examples to help you .

Today we continue our discussion of school calendars as a new American school year (0 down ) starts.

Some people say the (00 across ) conventional calendar of one hundred eighty days no longer meets the (1 down ) requirements of American society. They point out that students in most other industrial countries are in school more hours a day and more days a year.

Critics also say a long summer vacation causes students to forget much of what they learned.

Schools are under pressure to raise test scores. Some have changed their calendars to try to improve students’ results. They have (2 across ) extended the school day or added days to the year or both.

This can be (3 down ) expensive if schools need air conditioning on hot days and school (4 across ) staff need to be paid for the extra time.

Local businesses may object to a longer school year because students are unable to work long in summer jobs.

Some schools have a year-round (5 down ) program . The school year is extended over twelve months. Instead of a long vacation, there are many short ones.

The National Association of Year-Round Education says almost five percent of public school students (6 down ) go to year-round schools. It says almost all of the states have some public schools that are open all year.

Some parts of the country had year-round programs in the nineteenth century, mostly for economic reasons. They felt it wasted money to use school (7 down ) buildings for only part of the year. Some (8 across ) teachers think year-round education gives (9 across ) help and encouragement to students from poor families who (10 down ) do not have much financial assistance at home as their parents might not have permanent (11 across ) work.

Year-round (12 across ) education can also (13 across ) decrease crowding in schools. In one version, students attend school for nine weeks and then have three weeks off. The students are in groups that are not all in school at the same time.

Another year-round calendar has all students in school together for nine weeks and off for three. This is meant to (14 across ) supply the continuous learning that can be lost over a long break. And the main purpose of schools is to improve students’ (15 across ) achievements .

But year-round schooling has opponents. They say it can cause problems for families when they want to make summer plans. And they say it interferes with activities outside school – including summer employment.

Some experts say no really good studies have been done to measure the effect of school calendars on performance.












		00 t

			12 s


14

	15

Task 2. For questions 16-30 , complete the text with the words from the box. You may use one word more than once. Write the letter A-M for the word you choose in the box below the text.

A egg B omelet C poison D grain E milk F bacon G eat H eggshells I sardines J tea K salt L mustard M coffee

My mother always told us “there is no use crying over spilt 16) ____.” That means you should not get angry when something bad happens and cannot be changed.

People said my mother was “a good 17) _____.” She would always help anyone in need.

We never had to “walk on 18) ______” around her – we did not have to be careful about what we said or did because she never got angry with us.

She also told us “you have to break some eggs to make an 19) _____.” This means you have to do what is necessary to move forward.

My mother believed “you are what you 20) _____” – a good diet is important for good health. She would always give us nutritious food. She liked serving us meat and potatoes for dinner. “Meat and potatoes” can also mean the most important part of something. It describes someone who likes simple things.

Here is another expression about meat: “one man’s meat is another man’s 21) ____.” In other words, one person might like something very much while another person might hate the same thing.

My father was also a good and honest person. People said he was “the 22) ____ of the earth.” He would never “pour 23) ____ on a wound” – or make someone feel worse about something that was already a painful experience.

However, sometimes he told us a story that seemed bigger than life. So we had to “take it with a 24) ____ of salt” – that is, we could not believe everything he told us.

My husband has a good job. He makes enough money to support our family. So we say “he brings home the 25) _____.”

He can “cut the 26) _____” – or do what is expected of him at work.

It is easy to find my husband in a crowd. He stands almost two meters tall. He is “a tall drink of water.”

I take the train to work. It is not a pleasant ride because the train can be full of people. It is so crowded that we are “packed like 27) _____” – just like small fish in a can.

When we fail to see problems at work, my supervisor tells us to “wake up and smell the 28) ____” – we need to pay more attention and fix the problem.

I once made a big mistake at the office and felt foolish. I had “ 29) ____ on my face.”

Over the weekend, my friend invited me to watch a football game on television. But I do not like football. It is “not my cup of 30) ____.”

We hope we have given you “food for thought” – that is, something to think about.

16	17	18	19	20	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30

Task 3. For tasks 31-40 , change the word given in capitals on the right in such a way that it can fit the text lexically and grammatically.

Cheryl Kuit pressed play and Latin music filled the room. As Cheryl started practicing her Zumba dance moves, her 16-year-old daughter Amber let out a groan.

‘Come on,’ said Cheryl. ‘Don’t you feel like 31) __________?’

But while her mum boogied across the room, Amber just rolled her eyes and 32) _______________________ on texting her friends.

Cheryl couldn’t understand it. She’d loved PE at school, enjoyed squash in her 20s and 33) ___________________________ a dress size since becoming a Zumba Fitness teacher.

Her seven-year-old Catherine, loved running and gymnastics, but there 34) ______________________ no way of getting her big sister 35) _______________________ some exercise.

Cheryl said, ‘I want to encourage Amber to have a break from her books and computer screen. I’d love her to go to the gym.’

But Amber said that having piles of homework stopped her from getting fit.

‘I’m at school from 8am to 4pm,’ she explained. ‘Then I come home and do three hours of homework. I just 36) ______________ time for sport.’

She admitted she’d rather spend her free time hanging out with friends – and it was no help that her school didn’t see PE a priority.

She said, ‘Because we 37) ________________ exams now, our year group has just one hour a week for sport. There are clubs but you have to be the very best to get in. They 38) ___________________ just for fun.’

Cheryl, 46, of Dennan Road, Surbiton, Greater London, 39) _____________________ up hope yet. She thinks everything will be all right. She says, ‘I’ll be a very happy lady when one day Amber 40) ____________________, “Come on, Mum. Let’s go Zumba!” ’

DANCE

CARRY

DROP

TAKE

NOT HAVE

NOT BE

NOT GIVE

SAY

Task 4. For questions 41-50 , think of one word only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences.

41. ● I need more ………………………….…… at using this computer program.

● I am worried about my interview because I’m a bit out of …………..……… .

● The …………..……… of dumping the waste into the river has to be stopped.

42. ● Her teeth were …………….... after she’d worn braces on them for two years.

● He managed to speak with a steady, …….………voice, despite the fact that he was furious with them.

● Make sure the surface is ……………..….. before you put up the wall paper.

43. ● The ………………..… with him is that he doesn’t have any patience.

● She went to a lot of ………………..… to prepare the meal.

● She’s had a lot of back ……………..…. lately and will have to have an operation.

44. ● He is very ………………….. with money.

● That’s a …………………. thing to do.

● The ……………….... annual temperature is 25ºC.

45. ● She began to ………………….…… the milk into the sauce.

● He was in a deep sleep and didn’t …………………..….. once all night.

● The book seemed to ……………………..….. him profoundly.

46. ●You can carry this box; it’s ……………………………. .

● She bought a beautiful …………………………. blue dress.

●There was a ……………………..…. knock at the door.

47. ● Her house was very close to the local rubbish ……………………..…. .

● Let me give you a …………………....: you need to get some legal advice.

●She left a ………………….…. on the table for the waiter.

48. ● He …………………………... on you for support.

● She …………………………. Angela as one of her closest friends.

● It’s a person’s character that ……………………… not their appearance.

49. ●They haven’t ……….. a date for the wedding, but it will be sometime next spring.

● His arm isn’t straight because the doctor didn’t ……………….…. it properly.

● If you make the salad, I’ll …………………………..… the table.

50. ●Too much criticism is hard to …………………..…….. .

● Oh, you know how silly he is. He’ll ……………..…. any old story, no matter how unbelievable it is.

● The cost of private education will …………….…. up your savings in no time.

Writing

Task 1. The editor of a student magazine, publishing a series of articles on different cultural events at your school, has asked you to contribute an article to it. You have decided to write about the film The Identical you saw last week with your family.

Read the film advertisement and handwritten notes prepared for the article. Then, using the information appropriately, write your article for the magazine.

Remember to:

● include a title;

● use an appropriate style;

● make a critical evaluation and analysis of the event;

● recommend what should be done to make this kind of event better and more acceptable for school children and their families.

Write 220-250 words .

The text of the advertisement or any of its parts should not be copied in your article, USE YOUR OWN WORDS AND EXPRESSIONS.

Time: 50 minutes

Film Advertisement

Started much later Brilliant acting Good choice

Sunday 4 p.m. A family film! The Identical , a drama and musical, which will please everyone , is a captivating journey about the restoration and the reconciliation of a family broken apart by culture, devotion, creed and tradition. The plot is funny and enjoyable. Twin brothers are unknowingly separated at birth; one of them becomes an iconic rock "n" roll star, while the other struggles to balance his love for music and pleasing his father. The fabulously named Blake Rayne plays two brothers in this story based on the life of Elvis Presley and his brother who died in childbirth. There are many funny and enjoyable scenes. Running time – 107 minutes, with a short interval for people to buy refreshments and ice-cream . Tickets 400 RUB .

No ice-cream Too much Too short Interesting, but not dynamic enough

Some songs are silly No Elvis music is heard

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

YOU CAN USE THE REVERSE SIDE

Предварительный просмотр:

Task 1.

Police Officer: Hello. 24th Precinct. Officer Jones speaking.

Man: Help. Yeah, uh, it was wild, I mean really bizarre.

Police Officer: Calm down sir! Now, what do you want to report?

Man: Well, I"d like to report a UFO sighting.

Police Officer: A what?

Man: What do you mean "what?" An unidentified flying object!

Police Officer: Wait, tell me exactly what you saw.

Man: Well, I was driving home from a party about three hours ago, so it was about 2:00 AM, when I saw this bright light overhead.

Police Officer: Okay. And then what happened?

Man: Oh, man. Well, it was out of this world. I stopped to watch the light when it disappeared behind a hill about a kilometer ahead of me.

Police Officer: Alright. Then what?

Man: Well, I got back in my car and I started driving toward where the UFO landed.

Police Officer: Now, how do you know it was a UFO? Perhaps you only saw the lights of an airplane , or the headlights of an approaching car . Things like that happen, you know.

Man: Well if it was that, how do you explain "the BEAST"?

Police Officer: What do you mean, "the BEAST"?

Man: Okay. I kept driving for about five minutes when all of a sudden, this giant, hairy creature jumped out in front of my car.

Police Officer: Oh, yeah.Then what?

Man: Well, then, the beast picked up the front of my car and said, "Get out of the car. I"m taking you to my master!" Something like that.

Police Officer: Wow? A hairy alien who can speak English! Come on!

Man: I"m not making this up, if that"s what you"re suggesting. Then, when I didn"t get out of the car, the beast opened the car door, carried me on his shoulders to this round-shaped flying saucer, and well, that"s when I woke up along side the road. The beast must have knocked me out and left me there.

Police Officer: Well, that"s the best story I"ve heard all night, sir. Now, have you been taking any medication, drugs, or alcohol in the last 24 hours? You mentioned you went to a party.

Man: What? Well, I did have a few beers, but I"m telling the truth.

Police Officer: Okay, okay. We have a great therapist that deals with THESE kinds of cases.

Man : "Humph" What do you mean "Humph." I was the star player in high school.

Woman : Yeah, twenty-five years ago. Look, I just don"t want you having a heart attack running up and down the court.

Man :So, what are you suggesting? Should I just abandon the idea? I"m not that out of shape .

Woman : Well . . . you ought to at least have a physical before you begin. I mean, it HAS been at least five years since you played at all.

Man :Well, okay, but . . .

Woman : And you need to watch your diet and cut back on the fatty foods, like ice cream. And you should try eating more fresh fruits and vegetables.

Man : Yeah, you"re probably right.

Woman : And you should take up a little weight training to strengthen your muscles or perhaps try cycling to build up your cardiovascular system . Oh, and you need to go to bed early instead of watching TV half the night.

Man : Hey, you"re starting to sound like my personal fitness instructor!

Woman : No, I just love you, and I want you to be around for a long, long time.

Task 3. Integrated reading and listening

Today let’s talk about the effect of music on babies. There’s the theory about the so-called Mozart Effect, which refers to the supposed increased performance of babies after listening to Mozart. But the claims made in the book have been challenged and disproved by a number of other studies. Let me tell you about them.

First, let’s talk about a study often referred to that supports the Mozart Effect where the participants took three different tests. While the test-takers were completing the test, they listened to either Mozart, relaxation music, or nothing at all. Well, what is often left out is that the test-takers in the study were not babies at all – they were college students. Which explains why they were able to take the tests in the first place, right? Anyway, even if we decide to overlook the fact that we’re talking about college students, the effects mentioned in the study were also not long-lasting. The extra nine points that were added to their IQs after listening to Mozart went away after about 15 minutes.

Another claim made is that listening to Mozart makes children more creative. It even says that if you play Mozart for babies before they are born, they will be born more creative than babies who did not listen to Mozart. But there is no actual scientific proof of any of this. Since the theory of the Mozart Effect became popular, claims like this have been made over and over again, mostly to help sell expecting parents CDs of classical music. But, until some proof is reported, we have to consider such claims as nothing more than marketing tools.

Федеральное государственное бюджетное образовательное учреждение высшего образования

Тульский государственный

педагогический университет им. Л.Н. Толстого

(ФГБОУ ВО «ТГПУ им. Л.Н. Толстого»)

Задания муниципального этапа всероссийской олимпиады школьников_2017/2018 учебного года

по английскому языку

Тула 2 O 17

Список разработчиков

1. Андреев В.Н. - канд.филол.наук, доцент, зав.кафедрой английской филологии

2. Игнатова И.В. - канд.филол.наук, доцент кафедры английской филологии ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

3. Трайковская Н.П. - канд.филол.наук, доцент кафедры английской филологии ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

4.Уварова Е.А. - канд.филол.наук, доцент кафедры английской филологии ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

5. Болушевская И.Н. - ст.преподаватель кафедры английской филологии ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

6. Калинина Е.В. - ст.преподаватель кафедры английского языка ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

7. Конистерова Е.А. - ст.преподаватель кафедры английского языка ТГПУ им.Л.Н.Толстого

Список использованной литературы

1.Virginia Evans, Jenny Dooley. Upstream. Level B1+. Student’s Book. Express Publishing, 2006

2. V. Evans Round-up 4. English Grammar Practice. – Longman: Pearson Education, 2009

3. R. Murphy English grammar in use. – London: Cambridge University Press, 2009

4.Listening Extra - CUP, 2007

5.Reading Extra- CUP, 2004

6.Cochrane S., Nicholas R., Aravanis R. Code Red B2 Student Book. – Macmillan, 2010

7.Spencer D. Gateway 2nd Edition B2+ Student’s Book Premium Pack. – Macmillan, 2016

8.Busyteacher.org – образовательный сайт

Задания для 9-11 классов

Аудирование (Listening )

Time: 15 minutes

You will hear people talking in ten different situations. For questions 1-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C). You will hear the recording once.

1 You hear a person speaking about the clothes suitable for some occasion. Where does the occasion take place?

A a wedding

B a friend’s birthday party

C a classical ballet

2 The speaker is discussing a person’s style. What is wrong with it?

A It is untidy.

B It is too informal.

C It is too formal.

3 You hear two people talking about a friend of theirs. What does the woman say about the friend?

A He talks a lot about his lifestyle.

B He leads a comfortable lifestyle.

C He may change his lifestyle.

4 You overhear a man talking to a friend on his mobile phone. Why is he phoning?

A to persuade his friend to do something

B to ask for some information

C to change an arrangement

5 You hear a woman talking about her family’s financial situation. What is she going to do?

A ask someone to help her

B try to find a job

C sell something valuable

6 You overhear a man and a woman talking about their morning routine. How does the man feel about his mornings?

A He hates travelling to work.

B He does not like getting up early.

C He finds it difficult to talk to other people.

7 You hear a woman on the radio talking about her experiences in a foreign country. What surprised her about the people?

A the importance they give to clothes

B the type of food they eat

C their attitude to work

8 You turn on the radio and hear the following. What is it?

A a review

B a news report

C an advertisement

9 You hear two people talking about the village they both live in. What does the woman think of the village?

A People are not always very friendly.

B Some of the roads are dangerous.

C There are not enough children.

10 You hear a man talking about his job. Who is the man?

A a hotel doorman

B a hotel receptionist

C a hotel manager

Чтение (Reading)

Time: 3 0 minutes

1. For questions 1-10, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. Write your answers in CAPITAL LETTERS.

Good Neighbours

According to a recent survey, most people are (1) _____with
their neighbours and think they deserve better! It’s not that they want to have a close (2) _____with them, but they would
like them to be more (3) _____. The ideal neighbour is
apparently ‘friendly, but not too (4) _____, easygoing and
dependable.’ Noise is one of the biggest problems, with loud music and barking dogs at the top of the list. (5) _____between neighbours are becoming more and more
common. Take the recent case of a man in the United Kingdom who was (6) _____ to control his fury when his
neighbour started mowing his lawn at seven o’clock one Sunday morning. Still dressed in his pyjamas, the man climbed over the garden fence and grabbed the lawnmower. Then, while his neighbour watched in (7) _____, he threw
the lawnmower into the garden pond! ‘I’m usually a (8) _____
person,’ the man later said. ‘The (9) _____ is I was tired and I
wanted to have a lie-in.’ Fortunately, most people don’t go to these extremes, even if they aren’t always in (10) _____ with their neighbours about everything!

2. Read the text and answer the questions that follow (only one answer can be correct)

Pyramid Legends

There are persistent legends that the Great Pyramid was used as some sort of sacred initiation center. According to one legend, students who had first undergone years of preparation, meditation and metaphysical instruction in an esoteric school (the mythic "Hall of Records" hidden deep beneath the desert sands somewhere near the Great Pyramid and the Sphinx) were placed in the granite coffer of the main chamber and left alone throughout an entire night. The coffer was the focal point of the energies gathered, concentrated, aimed, and directed at the main chamber by virtue of the precise mathematical location, alignment, and construction of the pyramid. These energies, considered to be especially potent at certain precisely calculated periods when the earth was in a particular geometric alignment with solar, lunar, and stellar objects, were conducive to the awakening, stimulation, and acceleration of spiritual consciousness in the suitably prepared adept. While it is now nearly impossible to spend an evening alone in the coffer of the main chamber, it is interesting to read the reports of those persons who have done so in the past. Mention will be made of experiences both terribly frightening (perhaps because of the lack of any appropriate training on the part of the experimenter) and also deeply peaceful, even spiritually illuminating. Napoleon himself spent a night alone in the chamber. Emerging pale and dazed, he would not speak of his powerful experiences, only saying, "You would not believe me if I told you."

A second matter needing further inquiry from the scientific community studying the Great Pyramid - and one that might help explain the subject just discussed - concerns the matter of unexplained energetic anomalies frequently noticed and recorded in the main chamber. In the 1920s, a Frenchman named Antoine Bovis made the surprising discovery that, despite the heat and high humidity of the main chamber, the dead bodies of animals left in the chamber did not decay but completely dehydrated. Thinking that there might be some relationship between this phenomena and the position of the main chamber in the pyramid, Bovis constructed a small-scale model of the pyramid, oriented it to the same direction as the Great Pyramid, and placed the body of a dead cat at the approximate level of the main chamber. The result was the same. As he had observed in the Great Pyramid, the cat"s body did not decay. In the 1960s, researchers in Czechoslovakia and the U.S., conducting limited studies of the geometry of the pyramid, repeated this experiment with the same results. They also found that the form of the pyramid somehow mysteriously kept foods preserved without spoiling, sharpened dull razor blades, induced plants to germinate and grow more quickly, and hastened the healing of animals" wounds. Other scientists, in consideration of the high quartz content of the granite blocks in the main chamber and the incredible pressures those blocks are subjected to, theorized that the main chamber may have been the focal point of a powerful piezoelectric field; magnetometer measurements inside the chamber indeed showed higher levels than the normal background geomagnetic field.

Although much research remains to be done in these areas, legend, archaeology, mathematics, and earth sciences seem to indicate that the Great Pyramid was a monumental device for gathering, amplifying, and focusing a mysterious energy field for the spiritual benefit of human beings. We do not know exactly how the pyramid and its main chamber were used, and the geometric structure of the pyramid has been subtly altered by the removal of the casing stones and the cap-stone. None-the-less, the Great Pyramid of the Giza plateau still emanates great power as a transformational power place. It has done so for uncounted thousands of years and seems destined to continue for ages to come.

11 Why were the ancient meditation students placed inside the Great Pyramid?

1) to practice meditation skills

2) to be taught there

3) to learn more about there inner balance

4) To gain physical and spiritual power

12 It’s impossible to spend a night in the Pyramid because

1) it’s too scary

2) it’s forbidden by law

3) the admittance is not allowed

4) there are too many people there

13 The potential energy of the Pyramid could be experienced

1) at night only

3) when the Earth is in balance with solar system

4) when stellar objects are close to the Earth

14 Which energetic anomalies were not registered in the Pyramid?

1) it kept water fresh

2) it kept the dead bodies from decay

3) the injuries were healed quicker

4) it made the plants grow faster

15 What helped to keep food fresh in the Pyramid?

1) the form of the Pyramid

2) sharpened dull razor blades

3) the geomagnetic field

4) a powerful piezoelectric field

Лексико-грамматический тест (Use of English )

Time: 15 minutes

I. Read and complete the following sentences (only one answer can be correct)

1. «What …?» «I’m a student.»

a. do you b. do you do

c. you d. you do

2. … I have a table for two please?» «Sure.»

a. Would b. Must

c. Could d. Do

3. That isn’t your umbrella. It’s ….

a. her b. my

c. him d. mine

4. His English is very good. He speaks Italian …, too.

a. badly b. bad

c. good d. well

5. My cousin … for my birthday.

a. gave me a camera b. gave to me a camera

c. gave a camera me d. me gave a camera

6. The woman … came yesterday is very rich.

a. she b. who

c. which d. than

7. «Please be patient.» He told me … .

a. to be patient b. be patient

c. that be patient d. that I be patient

Read the text and choose the right alternative.

How I got my dream job

Andy Collins , 46 : “ As a student, I earned $295 a week in cash working in a beach café. At the time, it was my 8 (job dream / dream job / job of dream)! Later I became a 9 (cooker / waiter / chef). It was hard work, I was 10 (never / rarely / often) in a hot kitchen for twelve hours a day, six days a week. But you 11 (might / could / have to) know the meaning of hard work if you want to 12 (achieve / deliver / pass) your goals. I now own five restaurants around the U. S. My best advice 13 (was / is / were) to find 14 (in / out / on) what your skills and talents are. Talent is something you’re born with. Skills are something you’ve learned to do. People like doing things that come 15 (nature / natural / naturally) to them, so work and enjoy!”

For questions 16-25 , read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.

Sales of George Orwell"s 1984 surge after Kellyanne Conway"s

"alternative facts"

Sales of George Orwell’s dystopian drama 1984 have soared after Kellyanne Conway, adviser to the reality-TV-star-turned-president, Donald Trump, used the (16) ________“alternative facts” in an interview. As of Tuesday, the book was the sixth (17)______ book on Amazon.

Comparisons were made with the term “newspeak” used in the 1949 novel, which was used to signal a fictional language that aims at (18) ______ personal thought and also “doublethink”. In the book Orwell writes that it “means the power of (19) _____ two contradictory beliefs in one’s mind (20) _______, and accepting both of them”.

The connection was initially made on CNN’s Reliable Sources. “Alternative facts is a George Orwell phrase,” said Washington Post reporter Karen Tumulty.

Conway’s use of the term was in reference to White House press secretary Sean Spicer’s comments about last week’s inauguration (21) ______“the largest audience ever”. Her interview was widely criticized and she was sub-tweeted by Merriam-Webster dictionary with a definition of the word fact. On last night’s Late Night with Seth Meyers, the host joked: “Kellyanne Conway is like someone trying to do a Jedi mind (22) ____ after only a week of Jedi training.”

In 1984, a superstate wields extreme control (23) ____ the people and persecutes any form (24) ___ independent (25) _____thought.





				D simultaneously

24. A. of B. to C. forward to D. up to

25. A. idea B. thought C. country D. frame

Time: 45 minutes

You are to write a letter of application. Read the job advertisement below

SAFE-JOURNEY TOURS

TOUR GUIDES

We are looking for cheerful, enthusiastic, sociable people who

Speak two or more languages

Have travelled a lot and are interested in other countries and cultures

Are ready to explore the world

Can motivate and engage people

Please apply to

Anne Jackson, Personnel Manager

Safe-Journey Tours, Victoria Street, London SW16VC, UK

Write your letter of application for SAFE JOURNEY TOURS

Task 1

For items 1–10 listen to a passage from a lecture and decide whether the statements (1–10) are TRUE (A) , or FALSE (B) according to the text you hear. You will hear the text twice .
Аудиозапись

Some time ago the speaker went to buy a new bicycle.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker left the shop without buying anything.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker promised the shopkeeper to come back later.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker didn’t want to offend the shopkeeper.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker thinks that his behaviour in the shop was tactful.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker disagrees with the Collins Dictionary definition of tact.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker wants to find words that would make people feel better.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker doesn’t refer to the situations when one needs to compliment somebody.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker calls the behaviour when one is trying to help people avoid feeling bad negative behaviour.
- A) True
- B) False
The speaker thinks that only positive behaviour is important.
- A) True
- B) False

Task 2

For items 11–15 A, B or C ) to answer questions 11–15 . You will hear the text only once .

How does Patrick describe the Isle of Collett?
- A) As a place with bad weather conditions.
- B) As a very distant place.
- C) As a stony island.
What helped Patrick pass the time?
- A) Work on his university thesis.
- B) Weather research.
- C) Birdwatching.
When Patrick says ‘It took me less than 20 minutes’ he means that…
- A) he couldn’t leave his work for longer.
- B) the island is very small.
- C) he doesn’t like long walks.
What does Patrick say about his PhD thesis?
- A) He still has a year to work on it.
- B) It was rejected by the university.
- C) He has finished it.
Where does Patrick plan to spend his short holiday?
- A) In London.
- B) In the Mediterranean.
- C) Back on the Isle of Collett.

READING

Time: 45 minutes (40 scores)

Task 1

For items 1–10 , read the passage below and choose option A, B, C or D which best fits according to the text.

Duncan Phyfe

Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name was originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated to Albany, New York where Duncan’s father opened a cabinet making shop. Duncan followed in his father’s footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing his training, Duncan moved to New York City. Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture “joiner” in business at 2 Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name to Phyfe. He was a quiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his new name would probably appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British in this post-Revolutionary War period. Duncan Phyfe’s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spelling helped him better compete with French émigré craftsmen, his new name had more to do with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop.
The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. They were no longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in history, a man learned that by working hard, he could build his business based on his own name and reputation and quality of work. Phyfe’s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employed 100 craftsmen. Some economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of labor and an assembly line. What his workshop produced shows Phyfe’s absolute dedication to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best available materials. He was reported to have paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log.

Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period’s classical styles, Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, Phyfe’s high quality craftsmanship established him as America’s patriotic interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries. Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe’s workshop is enormous, comparatively few marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctions, collectors have paid $11,000 for a card table, $24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a sewing table.

Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe?
- A) He regretted that Great Britain no longer governed New York City.
- B) He was an excellent businessman with a good sense of craftsmanship and design.
- C) He built all his furniture by himself in a workshop in Santo Domingo.
- D) He joined the cabinetmakers’ guild after he moved to Scotland in 1792.
According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?
- A) Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.
- B) Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.
- C) Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.
- D) Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.
Which sentence in paragraph 2 explains Duncan’s name change?
- A) The third sentence.
- B) The second sentence.
- C) The first sentence.
- D) None of the above.
Which choice does the word ‘it’ refer to in the second paragraph?
- A) His spelling.
- B) His chair.
- C) His name.
- D) His French.
Which of the following does the word ‘freedom’ refer to?
- A) Restricted.
- B) No longer restricted.
- C) By working hard.
- D) Took off.
Which choice is closest in meaning to the word ‘guild’ in the third paragraph?
- A) Organization of craftsmen.
- B) Verdict of a jury.
- C) Political party of émigrés.
- D) Immigrants’ club.
Where in the passage could the following sentence be added to the passage? Every joint was tight, and the carved elements were beautifully executed.
- A) After the word “workmanship” in paragraph 3.
- B) After the word “cabinetmaker” in paragraph 1.
- C) After the word “stoop” in paragraph 2.
- D) After the words “sewing table” in the last paragraph.
In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) division of labor.
- B) an assembly line.
- C) continental designs.
- D) inexpensive materials.
Based on information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe’s death?
- A) He died in the eighteenth century.
- B) He died in England.
- C) He died in the nineteenth century.
- D) He died in Scotland.
The author implies that furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s work-shop
- A) no longer exists.
- B) costs a lot of money today.
- C) was ignored by New Yorkers.
- D) was made by his father.

Task 2

For items 11–20 , read the passage below and choose which of the sentences A–K fit into the numbered gaps in the text. There is one extra sentence which does not fit in any of the gaps. Write the correct letter in boxes 11–20 on your answer sheet.

Ever since the 1910s, when film-makers first set up shops in Hollywood, mapmakers have been making quite unusual and even unique things: maps showing the locations of the fabulous homes of the stars. Collectively, they form an unofficial version of the Oscars, showing who’s in and who’s out in the film world. ‘Each one looks different,’ says Linda Welton, whose grandfather and mother pioneered these maps. 11 ________. Former film stars vanish from them, new ones appear on them, and some of the truly greats are permanent fixtures on them.
In 1933, noticing the steady stream of tourists going westward to follow the stars from Hollywood to Beverly Hills (the nearby district where most of the stars went to live), Linda’s grandfather, Wesley Lake, got a copyright for his Guide to Starland: Estates and Mansions. 12 ________. For 40 years Linda’s mother, Vivienne, sold maps just down the road from Cary Cooper’s place at 200, Baroda*. The asterisk indicates that it was the actor’s final home, as opposed to a plus sign (denoting an ex-home) or a zero (for no view from the street).
‘My grandfather asked Mom to talk to the gardeners to find out where the stars lived,’ Linda recalls. ‘She would come up to them and say: “ 13 ________” Who would suspect a little girl?’ Linda Welton and her team now sell about 10,000 maps a year from a folding chair parked curbside six days a week. 14 ________.

The evolution of the maps mirrors both the Hollywood publicity machine and real estate and tourism development. 15 ________. The first celebrity home belonged to the artist Paul de Longpre. 16 ________.

Although it is not known for certain who published the first map, by the mid-1920s all sorts of people were producing them. 17 ________.
One of the most famous of the early maps was produced to show the location of Pickfair, the home of the newly married stars Mary Pickford and Douglas Fairbanks, and the homes of some of their star friends. During World War I, they opened their home to serve refreshments to soldiers. As Vivienne Welton once explained in an interview, to a map and cartography magazine, ‘She asked a few friends to do the same. 18 ________.’

For over 40 years, people have marched toward the corner of Sunset and Baroda with hand-painted yellow signs saying: ‘Star Maps, 2 blocks’, ‘Star Maps, 1 block’, ‘Star Maps here’. The maps reflect the shifting geography of stardom as celebrities, looking for escape from over-enthusiastic fans, some with quite unhealthy intentions, have moved out to various districts in Malibu. 19 ________. Legendary stars – Garbo, Monroe, Chaplin – remain on them. 20 ________.

A. As they do so, they give advice to the tourists on star safaris through the lime green landscape of Beverly Hills.
B. Studios like Paramount published the names and addresses of its stars on theirs, and businesses distributed them as a promotional gimmick.
C. Others, however, say that the star maps are still an essential part of Hollywood and the film world.
D. More profoundly, perhaps, the maps suggest the temporary nature of fame.
E. Early film stars like Lillian Gish lived in modest, somewhat grubby rooming houses, taking street cars to and from the studio.
F. Updated regularly, they are still for sale at the corner of Sunset Boulevard and Baroda Drive.
G. And so a map was needed.
H. It is the oldest continuously published star map and one of a half-dozen or so maps of varying degrees of accuracy and spelling correctness sold today.
I. Oh, this is a beautiful garden, but who lives here?
J. Others, however, hang on for about a decade and then vanish.
K. He had a luxuriously-landscaped house at Cahuenga Avenue and Hollywood and real estate agents would take prospective clients past it on tours.

USE OF ENGLISH

Time: 60 minutes, (50 scores)

Task 1. Questions 1–15

For Questions 1–15 , read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word on your answer sheet. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00 ).

Example:

0	V
00	far

The Plaza hotel

0	The Plaza is situated close to the centre of town and only
00	20 minutes’ drive far from the airport. There are 605 guest
1	rooms providing a luxurious accommodation for tourists
2	and business people alike. Each room it is equipped with
3	a colour television, a mini bar and an individually-controlled
4	air conditioning. Guests have the choice of five superb
5	restaurants. Why not to sample local specialities in the Bistro
6	on the ground floor or enjoy yourself the finest international
7	cuisine in the fabulous Starlight Room with its panoramic
8	view of the city? There is a wide range of facilities for
9	relaxation and enjoyment including of a swimming pool,
10	health club, beauty salon and karaoke bar. In addition,
11	our modern conference centre which has been
12	designed to meet all your business needs. Why should you not stay
13	elsewhere when you can be sure of a warm welcome
14	and excellent service at the Plaza? For reservations
15	and information please to call 010 534 766 (24 hours).

Task 2. Questions 16–25

Example: 0 . The pool isn’t deep enough to swim in.
too
The pool ……………………. swim in.

0	*is too shallow to*

Laura had to pay a fine of 50 dollars because she didn’t have a ticket.

dollar
Laura had to pay …………………… because she didn’t have a ticket.

The concert wasn’t as good as we had expected.

live
The concert didn’t ……….. our expectations.

I’ve been too busy to answer my emails, but I’ll do it soon.

round
I haven’t ………… my emails yet, but I’ll do it soon.

It’s nearly lunchtime, so would you like to eat something?

feel
It’s nearly lunchtime, so do ……………………………… something to eat?

Complaints about the food! That’s all I ever hear from you!

always
You …………………………… the food!

They took advantage of the day-off at work and went to the seaside!

most
They ………………… of the day-off at work and went to the seaside!

Two detectives investigating the robbery questioned us for over an hour.

enquiries
Two detectives ……………….. the robbery questioned us for over an hour.

Jake was the person who started my interest in collecting pottery.

got
It was Jake ………… in collecting pottery.

He really wanted to impress the interviewers.

desperate
He ………………………. the interviewers a good impression.

Because he was injured he couldn’t play in the next game.

prevented
His ……….…. in the next game.

Task 3. Questions 26–30

Informal English	Neutral Equivalents
26. Oh well, don’t let it get you down	A) to borrow sth for a short time
27. I wish you’d stop going on about it for hours on end.	B) to change one’s mind
28. It really bugs me when people don’t return my pen after they’ve borrowed it.	C) to fool sb
29. My bicycle’s been nicked	D) to annoy sb
30. He flipped his lid	E) to upset sb
	F) to steal sth
	G) to argue
	H) to lose one’s temper
	I) to speak steadily
	J) to surprise sb

Task 4. Questions 31–40

31 . The Trail of Tears	A) the artist who made his masterpieces by putting the painting on the floor and then walking around it, letting the paint drip from sticks
32 . John Bull	B) a figure who stands for the USA sometimes represented by the figure of a man with a white beard and tall hat
33 . The Great Gatsby	C) This book deals with a poor Cockney girl who is taught how to speak and behave like an upper class lady as a scientific experiment.
34 . Prohibition	D) the period from 1919 to 1933 in the US when the production and sale of alcoholic drinks was illegal
35 . Louisiana Purchase	E) an English filmmaker of the 20-th century who specialized in thrillers
36 . Pygmalion	F) the massive area of land bought from France in 1803 which doubled the US size
37 . The Great Depression	G) a figure who stands for England in literary and political satire
38 . Jackson Pollock	H) a group of eight old and respected universities in the Northeastern US
39 . The Ivy League	I) the path that the Cherokees, forced to move away from their homes, travelled in the autumn and winter of 1838 to 1839
40 . Alfred Hitchcock	J) the severe economic problems that followed the Wall Street Crash of 1929 and resulted in the failure of many banks and businesses
	K) This novel describes the rise and fall of the main character, who extravagantly lives from bootlegging. He loves a beautiful woman who is the cause of his downfall.
	L) an English animator of the 20-th century who is famous for inventing some of the best-known cartoons
	M) Oxford and Cambridge together

WRITING

Time : 60 minutes, (30 scores)

Comment on the following quotation.

“All that glisters is not gold.”

Write 200–250 words .

Use the following plan:

explain how you understand the author’s point of view;
express your personal opinion and give 2–3 reasons in its support;
give examples to illustrate your reasons, using your personal experience, literature or background knowledge;
make a conclusion.

Внимание!

При превышении объема более чем на 10% от заданного (276 слов и более), проверяются первые 250 слов . При превышении объёма менее чем на 10% от заданного, баллы за содержание не снижаются.

Audioscript

Listening comprehension

For items 1–10 listen to a passage from a lecture and decide whether the statements (1–10) are TRUE (a), or FALSE (b) according to the text you hear. You will hear the text twice.
You have 20 seconds to study the statements.
(pause 20 seconds)

Now we begin.

Some time ago, I was in a bicycle shop looking for a new lock for my bicycle. The shopkeeper showed me several, patiently explaining their advantages and disadvantages. None of them was quite what I wanted and eventually I said to the shopkeeper, “I’ll think about it. Thanks very much”, and left the shop. Why did I say, “I’ll think about it”? Not something more straightforward like, “None of these is right”, “They’re too big”, “They are too small”, “They’re too expensive”, “I’ll go elsewhere”? I think, there are two reasons why I chose to say “I’ll think about it”. The first is that I didn’t want the shopkeeper to feel that his products were not valued or that his time had been wasted and second is that I didn’t want to be the object of his possible annoyance or irritation. In other words, I didn’t want him to feel bad. And I didn’t want me to feel bad. We have words for this general behavior pattern of not wanting ourselves or other people to feel bad as a result of the interactions that we have… have with other people. We talk about tact, which is defined in the Collins Concise Dictionary as ‘the sense of what is fitting and considerate in dealing with others so as to avoid giving offence’, or we might equally call this, as many people do, politeness behaviour. Now notice that the definition of tact talks about avoiding giving offence. It is not talking about something positive that we do in order to make people feel better than they otherwise would. So, here we are not talking about the kind of behaviour we get into when, for example, we console a friend whose cat has just been run over or compliment our partner on a very well-cooked meal. We are not trying here to positively make people feel better, but trying to avoid them feeling bad. So, this is a negative kind of behaviour that I’m talking about. But the fact that it’s negative doesn’t mean that it’s not terribly important. It is extremely important. It is essential to our self-preservation and to social cohesion. And for this reason avoidance behaviour is of great interest to many different kinds of scholars.

(pause 20 seconds)

Now listen to the text again.

(text repeated)

You have 20 seconds to check your answers.

(pause 20 seconds)

For items 11–15 listen to the dialogue. Choose the correct answer (A, B or C ) to answer questions 11–15 . You will hear the text only once.
You now have 25 seconds to study the questions.

(pause 25 seconds)

Now we begin.

A Lonely Job

Jane : Wherever have you been, Patrick? I haven’t seen you for months. Someone said you’d emigrated.

Patrick : Whoever told you that? I’ve been working on a weather research station on the Isle of Collett.

Jane : Where on earth is that?

Patrick : It’s a lump of rock about 100 miles north-west of Ireland.

Jane : Whatever did you do to pass the time?

Patrick : Fortunately I had my university thesis to work on. If I hadn’t had a pile of work to do, I’d have gone off my head.

Jane : Was there anything else to do?

Patrick : Well, if you were a bird watcher, it would be a paradise; but whenever I got tired of studying, I could only walk round the island – and that took me less than twenty minutes.

Jane : However did you stand it? If I’d been in your shoes I’d have taken the first boat back to civilization.

Patrick : Well, I needed some information for my research there, and they paid me, so I saved some money. Now I can have a short holiday before I start looking for a job.

Jane : Have you finished your PhD already? I thought you had another year to do.
Patrick : No, time flies, you know. As long as they don’t reject my thesis, I’ll be leaving for London next week.

Jane : If I were you, I’d go off to the Mediterranean or somewhere before starting work.

Patrick : No thanks, I’ll stay in London. I’ve had enough of the sea for a while. This is the end of the listening comprehension part. You have 1 minute to complete your answer.

Keys

Use of English
Item	Answer
1	a
2	it
3	an
4	V
5	to
6	yourself
7	V
8	V
9	of
10	V
11	which
12	not
13	V
14	V
15	to
16	a 50-dollar fine
17	live up to
18	got round to answering
19	you feel like having
20	are always complaining about
21	made the most
22	making enquiries into/ about
23	who/ that got me interested
24	was desperate to give
25	injury prevented him from playing
26	E
27	I
28	D
29	F
30	H
31	I
32	G
33	K
34	D
35	F
36	C
37	J
38	A
39	H
40	E

Подсчёт баллов за все конкурсы

Listening – максимальное количество баллов 30. Задание проверяется по ключам. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. Затем полученное количество баллов умножается на два.

Reading – максимальное количество баллов 40. Задание проверяется по ключам. Каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. Затем полученное количество баллов умножается на два.

Use of English – максимальное количество баллов 50. Задание проверяется по ключам. В заданиях 1, 3, 4 каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 1 балл. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. В задании 1 орфография не учитывается. В задании 2 каждый правильный ответ оценивается в 2 балла. За неверный ответ или отсутствие ответа выставляется 0 баллов. Орфография учитывается. Если дан грамматически правильный ответ, но в ответе допущены орфографические ошибки, ответ оценивается в 1 балл.

Writing – максимальное количество баллов 30. Задание оценивается по Критериям оценивания. Затем полученное количество баллов умножается на два. При подведении итогов баллы за все конкурсы суммируются. Максимальное количество баллов за все конкурсы – 30 + 40+ 50 +30 = 150.

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ANSWER SHEET 9-11 listening, reading .doc

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ANSWER SHEET: LISTENING, READING (9-11)

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ANSWER SHEET: USE OF ENGLISH (9-11)

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ANSWER SHEET: WRITING (9-11)

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В тексте присутствуют многочисленные ошибки (более 7) в разных разделах грамматики, в том числе затрудняющие понимание текста.

0 баллов

В тексте присутствуют многочисленные орфографические (более 4) и/или пунктуационные ошибки (более 7) , в том числе затрудняющие понимание текста.

Процедура проверки работ в конкурсе письменной речи

 Каждая работа проверяется в обязательном порядке двумя экспертами, которые работают независимо друг от друга (никаких пометок на работах не допускается), каждый эксперт заносит свои оценки в свой протокол оценивания.

 Если расхождение в оценках экспертов не превышает двух баллов, то выставляется средний балл. Например, если первый эксперт ставит 9 балов, а второй 8 баллов, выставляется итоговая оценка в 9 баллов; если первый эксперт ставит 9 балов, а второй 7 баллов, выставляется итоговая оценка в 8 баллов.

 Если расхождение в оценках экспертов составляет три или четыре балла, то назначается еще одна проверка, в этом случае усреднению подлежат две наиболее близкие оценки.

 «Спорные» работы (в случае большого – 5 и больше – расхождения баллов) проверяются и обсуждаются коллективно.

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Script 1

Before the curtain rises, let"s listen to their conversation.

A: What took you so long? The play is starting soon.

B: I wanted to buy something to eat, but that turned out to be a wild-goose chase. This theater does not have any food!

A: I thought you went home.

B: Why would I leave?

A: I suspect you know more than you think.

B: What do you mean?

B: Well, I wish you would have told me that this theater doesn’t serve food before my wild-goose chase. I’m so hungry! A friend has been staying with me for the past month and he’s eating me out of house and home! There"s nothing left in my house to eat.

B: What expression, “I’m hungry!”?

B: That is exactly what is happening … just like in Henry IV!

A: So, why has your friend been staying with you for so long?

B: He says he got into a little trouble with the law and needs to lie low for a while.

A: Well, you must understand a little because you use his expressions all the time. “It’s Greek to me” is from the play Julius Caesar ! And it’s a one way to tell someone you don’t have a clue what’s going on.

A: Guess what?

Script 2

Chef Randall: Well, hello everyone, and welcome to today"s show. And joining me today is my daughter, Ashley, who has had to endure my cooking experiments over the years.

Are we ready, Ashley? No, let"s wait for a few minutes. We"ll get to that. But as you know, my faithful listeners, I starting cooking and baking almost 30 years ago when my grandmother taught me in her humble kitchen. In fact, she taught almost me everything I know, and I"ve never attended cooking classes Wait, wait, wait . . . I know my daughter"s going to mention to you faithful listeners that recently as I was helping the kids prepare for our kitchen for chicken meal, I forgot to take the chicken out of the oven, burned the bird to a crisp, and we ended up ordering pizza for dinner.

Kids: We had to use the fire extinguisher.

Chef Randall: But that"s another story. So, anyway, today I"d like to share with you our favorite . . . at least my favorite . . . chocolate chip cookie recipe. Now, before you switch the TV channel, I know what you are thinking. "Another fattening cookie recipe." But wait. What makes this recipe great is that it offers a wonderful low-fat, low-calorie, low-cholesterol dessert for the entire family.

Kids: We still like the fat though.

Chef Randall: Well, I know we do. But let"s see. We have all the ingredients, so we can start by mixing all of the ingredients, the sugars, the flour, the egg whites, the low-fat butter, vanilla, baking soda, and a pinch of salt in a large mixing bowl. Then, we add the mini chocolate chips

Now, my kids would like me to add the big ones but we start with the mini-chocolate chips. And don"t forget to preheat the oven to 350 degrees (Fahrenheit).

And finally, when the cookies are done, take them out of the oven, remove them from the cookie sheet, and let them cool before their fingers get into them. Did I forget anything?

Kids: Yeah, if you have college-age kids, be sure to make a few extra batches they can take back to school for their roommates. And don"t forget the kids still at home.

Chef Randall: Oh, well yeah. We can"t do that. We can"t forget them. And unfortunately, by the time your kids get the cookies, you, the cook, will be left with a single cookie - your instant diet plan for you - and a dirty kitchen.

So, that"s all for today. On next week"s show, we will be showing you how to feed hungry teenagers on a budget without having to sell the family car. Until then.

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Муниципальный этап всероссийской олимпиады школьников по английскому языку, 2016 г.

9-11 классы

Part 1. Listening Comprehension (20 minutes)

Task 1. Say if the statements are True (A) or False (B).

One of the speakers uses the term ‘wild goose chase’ because he failed to buy food at the theatre.

‘A wild goose chase’ used to mean a horse race.

The speaker’s friend needs to lie low in order to avoid detection.

In old times the colour green was associated with good health.

If you cannot make head or tail of something, you say, ‘It’s Greek to me!’

‘Be-all and end-all’ means the least significant part of something.

Task 2. Match the expressions with the plays where they appeared. There are four extra plays which you do not need to use.

11) wild goose chase

12) eat someone out of house and home

13) lie low

14) it’s all Greek to me

15) be-all and end-all

Hamlet

Romeo and Juliet

King Lear

Macbeth

Othello

Julius Caesar

Richard III

Henry IV

Much Ado About Nothing

Task 3. Listen to the programme and fill in the gaps with no more than two words for each gap. You’ll hear the recording twice.

Chef Randall started cooking ________ years ago when his grandmother taught him how to do it.

He has never ___________ cooking classes.

When Randall was helping the kids prepare a chicken meal, he forgot to take the chicken out of the __________ .

The bird was burnt and they had to use a ________ _______________.

A chocolate chip cookie is an excellent ___________ for the entire family.

Chef Randall mixes sugar, ___________, egg whites, low-fat butter, vanilla, baking soda and salt.

It’s necessary not to forget to ___________ the oven to 350°.

When the cookies are ready, remove them from the cookie _________.

By the time the kids get the cookies, the chef will be left with a _________ cookie and a dirty kitchen.

Next time Randall will show how to feed hungry teenagers on a _______.

Part 2. Reading Comprehension (15 minutes)

Read the text about English houses and say whether the statements given below are True (A), False (B) or Not Given (C).

Most people in England live in flats.

Typical housing in Britain does not differ from that in other European countries.

High-rise buildings are a common feature of English towns and cities.

Tenants are evicted if they make noise and break the rules.

Having a garden is really important for an Englishman.

Terraced houses were cheaper to build than high-rise buildings during the Industrial Revolution.

In the times of the Industrial Revolution open fires heated all the rooms of the terraced house.

Semi-detached houses were not expensive to build and seemed convenient for people.

Most English homes are bought on a mortgage.

There are few old houses in England.

Rich people detest living in houses.

Bungalows are houses built on one level only and are an excellent dwelling for old people.

Flat residents pay rent and utilities.

Flats are popular among students, old people and poor families.

Living in a flat means more flexibility – it is easier to cancel the lease and move to a different location.

From towns and cities let us turn to the houses of Britain. The most important point is to understand that most of us do not live in flats. Every country has its typical housing so that if you cross from England into France or Germany or Spain, you will know instantly that you are in another country. The differences are partly architectural, partly aspects of the way people choose to domesticate their immediate surroundings. But there are also similarities. If you travel from Russia across Europe to western France you will observe that almost all cities have a centre with old buildings of three or four even five storeys, but that these centres are surrounded by modem blocks of high-rise flats. The details will vary, but all countries have found that the obvious solution to cheap new housing in order to accommodate families moving from the countryside or needing improved conditions is to build blocks of flats. They are rarely beautiful or spacious, but they are convenient and efficient. The problems are similar: noise, cramped public areas, unpredictable water supplies, broken lifts ... but they are homes for millions of people who prefer them to the more primitive conditions they have left.

In England, however, our cities are not encircled by these high-rise buildings. We resist living in flats; we prefer to live in rows of small brick houses. Of course some English people enjoy living in flats, but for the vast majority of us, the basic idea of home is a brick house with rooms upstairs and downstairs and with a garden, even if it is a very small garden.

The brick house is a legacy of the English - the earliest - Industrial Revolution. Employers at the beginning of the nineteenth century had to build accommodation for the millions of workers pouring into the cities and at that time they did not have the materials or technology for cheap building upwards. For them the cheapest solution was to build rows of small houses joined together (terraces), each with two small rooms downstairs and two small rooms upstairs. The rooms were small because they were heated by open fires, not by stoves, and families tended to huddle in one room (the kitchen). Bedrooms were unheated, and to this day many English people find it impossible to sleep except in a cold room with the windows wide open.

Most of our housing schemes thereafter are logical improvements to this working-class pattern. Houses became larger; millions of us live in houses with two rooms and a kitchen downstairs, and two or three small rooms plus bathroom-and-toilet upstairs. Before the First World War someone invented the ‘semi-detached house" which was still cheap to build but which allowed each family to reach the back of their house down a narrow side passage. This enabled men to carry sacks of coal to the back yard where it could be stored and used for the boiler and open fires.

Russians have a habit of describing anything built before about 1955 as ‘old’. (So do Californians, and no doubt many other people.) In England a house does not qualify as old unless it was built at least a hundred years ago. We still have tens of thousands of really old houses, built between the fourteenth and eighteenth centuries scattered throughout the country. They may be inconvenient but richer people love to live in them so they become very expensive, even when they are quite small. Thousands of these older houses are strikingly beautiful and protected by law. At the other end of the scale are ‘bungalows’, small brick houses of only one storey, built especially for the elderly. Many older people move from a house into a bungalow.

I have written that we do not live in flats. To be more precise, most of us do not live in flats unless we are young or old or poor. Students and young people who are renting accommodation will often find a converted flat constructed inside one of the many houses built for a single family with their servants a hundred years or more ago. These houses are too big for today’s family (with no servants!) so they are converted into three or four separate flats. The arrangement and size of rooms is often odd, but they have the advantages of ordinary family houses such as a garden.

Part 3. Use of English (55 minutes)

Task 1. For items 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. The first example (0) is done for you.

Suffolk is often overlooked (0) as a holiday destination.

A beautiful and unspoilt county, its countryside 1) _____ dotted with beautiful historic towns and villages, while exquisite beaches line the coast.

Much of Suffolk 2) ______ escaped the unsightly development blighting other counties, although its landscape is often dismissed 3) ______ monotonous and flat.

There’s lots of variety, spanning a romantically bleak coastline giving way 4) ______ salt marsh and sandy heaths, rich forest and fen, valleys and rolling hills.

Along the 60-mile coast, there’s the sleepy, ancient town of Orford, and genteel Aldeburgh. Orford boasts a 12th-century castle and 14th-century church, river cruises and pleasant pubs. Buy freshly baked bread from Pump Street Bakery, which also has a cafe. For smoked fish and local delicacies, pop 5) ____ Pinney’s, or dine in its celebrated restaurant, the Butley Orford Oysterage – its no-frills decor belies the delicious food 6) _____ offer.

The smart seaside town of Aldeburgh is a favourite with artists, composers and yachtsmen. It’s also home 7) _____ the annual Aldeburgh Festival (June) founded by Benjamin Britten, which is an arts festival with an emphasis 8) _____ classical music.

Aldeburgh 9) _____ once a thriving port with a successful ship building industry, the Golden Hind was built here, which circumnavigated the globe in the 16th century captained 10) _____ Sir Francis Drake.

Task 2. Read the interview with a well-known British actress Angela Griffin and complete the text with the correct form of the verbs from the box (affirmative or negative).

land do take work sign suppose be need teach grass

A Cup of Tea with Angela Griffin

How do you take your tea?
I like builder’s tea, with a little bit of milk.

Who would you most like to have a cup of tea with?
Ryan Gosling. He’s gorgeous! We could do a little cultural exchange. I’ll introduce him to the tea-drinking culture of England.

What’s the strangest job you’ve ever had?
When I was 14, I got a job sticking little bows onto shampoo bottles in a factory. I 11) ______________ to be working at all, but I lied and said I was older than I was. I lasted about two and a half hours before somebody 12) _____ me up to the managers.

When did acting become part of the picture?
My auntie Linda 13) ________ me to drama classes at Leed’s Children’s Theatre since I was 5. I had an agent by the time I was a teenager, and had done some children’s television programmes. Acting was my passion, but we 14) ______ a well-off family so if I wanted to buy something I had to earn the money myself.

Were you quite an independent teenager?
I guess so. I 15) ________ my first role in Coronation Street when I was 17, and moved into a flat on my own. By my 18th birthday, I 16) _________ the deeds to my first house in Leeds.

What did your parents think of your acting career?
They were just happy that I had a passion. Acting’s not their thing at all. My dad was a cleaner and my mum 17) _________ office skills at college. But they were glad I had something to aim for. I feel the same about my two daughters.

Your daughter Tallulah, 14, is now a working actress herself . Do you worry about the pressure the industry places on young actors?
Things are so much tougher for the youngsters now. It’s not just about the talent anymore. You’ve got to have the looks too. And there are some real scoundrels out there, but luckily I can guide Tallulah because I know how the business 18) __________ .

Do you tell Tallulah what she can and can’t do?
Until she’s 18, yes definitely! She’s mine, I own her. But I’m not one of these Victorian mums. If she 19) ________ to go away for 16 weeks to film a series then I will let her. I’m very open-minded to it all, but I’m not going to let her do a Lolita role or go live in America on her own at 14. I know how these things should go.

Task 3. For questions 21-30, think of one word only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences.

The temperature _______ to the freezing point.

People _______ like flies within weeks of being diagnosed.

I’d rather you _______ me a line.

I feel that I can never get _______ with George again.

We must _______ out the differences between social classes.

The tables are fitted with a glass top to provide an ________ surface.

I’d like to ________ your attention to the problem of unemployment in your region.

I was going to _______ $100 out of my account.

I don’t want you to _______ the wrong conclusion from the meeting.

It was my mother’s decision to _______ me Stephen.

Call James, tell him to _______ the price.

My best friend made her _______ with several collections of short stories.

This company is a takeover _________ .

It has been the ________ of international criticism for human rights abuses.

The arrow hit the centre of the _________ .

Sandra was writhing in ________, bathed in perspiration.

The practice of changing the clocks twice a year is a real _______.

It’s a _______ in the neck having to meet all my relatives at the airport.

Memories of that evening were still ________.

Simon has got a _______ imagination.

As I spoke, there came a _______ flash of lightning closely followed by a peal of thunder.

Old-age pensioners are __________ free to the museum.

Martin _________ that he had made a mistake.

It was well-known that the hall ________ 300 people.

The ice on the Great Lakes will ________ up soon.

I hate people who ________ their promise, they are not reliable.

Who’s going to ________ the bad news to her?

This novel is ______ in London in the 1960s.

I’m not to blame, I’ve been ______ up.

The arsonist who _______ fire to a family home in Barrow where two young children and several adults were sleeping has been jailed.

Task 4. Complete the text with the words from the box. There are 5 extra words, which you do not need to use.

the Tower of London the Houses of Parliament Westminster Abbey Robert Catesby James I Queen Mary II Queen Elizabeth I Charles I Guy Fawkes Lord Monteagle money cellar penny effigies gunpowder

In 1605, thirteen young men planned to blow up 31) _______________. Among them was Guy Fawkes, Britain’s most notorious traitor.

After 32) ___________________ died in 1603, English Catholics who had been persecuted under her rule had hoped that her successor, 33) _______, would be more tolerant of their religion. He had a Catholic mother and did not turn out to be tolerant. So, a number of young men, 13 to be exact, decided that violent action was the answer.

A small group took shape, under the leadership of 34) _____________ who felt that violent action was warranted. The plotters were going to kill the King, maybe even the Prince of Wales who were making life difficult for the Catholics.

To carry out their plan, the conspirators got hold of 36 barrels of 35) __________________ – and stored them in a 36) _____________.

But as the group worked on the plot, it became clear that innocent people would be hurt or killed in the attack, including some people who even fought for more rights for Catholics. Some of the plotters started having second thoughts. One of the group members even sent an anonymous letter warning his friend, 37) ____________, to stay away from the Parliament on November 5th. Was the letter real?

The warning letter reached the King, and the King’s forces made plans to stop the conspirators.

38) _______________ was caught by the authorities near the barrels, tortured and executed. The Plot was foiled in the night between the 4th and 5th of November 1605. Already on the 5th, agitated Londoners who knew little more than that their King had been saved, joyfully lit bonfires in thanksgiving. As years progressed, however, the ritual became more elaborate.

Soon, people began placing 39) _______________ onto bonfires, and fireworks were added to the celebrations. Preparations for Bonfire Night celebrations include making a dummy of Guy Fawkes, which is called “the Guy”. Some children even keep up an old tradition of walking in the streets, carrying “the Guy” they have just made, and beg passersby for “a 40) ________ for the Guy.” The kids use the money to buy fireworks for the evening festivities.

On the night itself, Guy is placed on top of the bonfire, which is then set alight; and fireworks displays fill the sky.

Part 4. Writing (40 minutes)

Time: 40 minutes

Write a composition expressing your opinion on the following problem:

Chinese will soon become an international language.

Write 180 -220 words.

Remember to

make an introduction,

express your personal opinion on the problem and give 3-4 reasons for your opinion,

make a conclusion.

Transfer your composition to the answer sheet!

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